In Helaman 8:11, Nephi refers to the story of Moses at the Red Sea:
Therefore he was constrained to speak more unto them saying: Behold, my brethren, have ye not read that God gave power unto one man, even Moses, to smite upon the waters of the Red Sea, and they parted hither and thither, insomuch that the Israelites, who were our fathers, came through upon dry ground, and the waters closed upon the armies of the Egyptians and swallowed them up? (emphasis added)
It is noteworthy that Nephi says Moses smote the waters, whereas the King James Version of the Bible says that Moses stretched forth his hand to part the Red Sea. This is interesting because:
How did Joseph Smith know that “smiting” the Red Sea would be an appropriate term to use? Why didn’t he just follow the wording of the Bible?