Why would Joseph Smith dictate “Ramath” instead of the usual “Ramah” the Book of Mormon version of Isaiah 10:29?

In 2 Nephi 20:29 we read:

They are gone over the passage; they have taken up their lodging at Geba; Ramath is afraid; Gibeah of Saul is fled. (emphasis added)

This is curious because it is slightly different to the King James Version of the scripture (Isaiah 10:29) which reads:

They are gone over the passage: they have taken up their lodging at Geba; Ramah is afraid; Gibeah of Saul is fled. (emphasis added)

The small difference is “Ramath” vs “Ramah”. Robert F. Smith explains why Joseph not adding the extra “t” is important:

Indeed, there is no “t” in the Hebrew text, the Greek Septuagint, or even in the Syropalestinian Aramaic version. The “t” appears, however, in the later Jewish Aramaic translation known as Targum Pseudo-Jonathan, as well as in the Christian Syriac Peshitta version. The words there are Ramata and Rameta, respectively (as is also evident in the Old Syriac Rametha for New Testament Arimathea in Matthew 27:57)

– Robert F. Smith – Textual Criticism of the Book of Mormon

Why think the extra “t” is a coincidence if it corresponds with other translations?

See:

• Robert F. Smith – Textual Criticism of the Book of Mormon

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