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How would Joseph Smith know about the phrase “for the multitude”?

In 3 Nephi 17:10 we read:

And they did all, both they who had been healed and they who were whole, bow down at his feet, and did worship him; and as many as could come for the multitude did kiss his feet, insomuch that they did bathe his feet with their tears. (emphasis added)

The word “for” here seems like a curious choice from Joseph Smith but its usage is also found in the Bible and in Early Modern English meaning “in consequence of”. 

How would Joseph Smith know the Bible (or Early Modern English) so well to notice this obscure meaning? If Joseph was trying to copy the Bible wouldn’t he have said “for the press”? 


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