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If Joseph Smith wrote the Book of Moses himself would we expect to see relative clauses like in Hebrew?

In Moses 1:33 we read:

And worlds without number have I created; and I also created them for mine own purpose; and by the Son I created them, which is mine Only Begotten. (emphasis added)

It seems odd to use the word “which” in this instance, however this is similar to the Book of Mormon’s usage of relative clauses, as explained by John A. Tvedtnes:

John A. Tvedtnes – The Hebrew Background of the Book of Mormon

Why would Joseph Smith continue to use relative clauses like this if no-one noticed in the Book of Mormon?


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